If feminism is for equality, why do feminists discount evidence of male oppression because “only women are oppressed,” then conclude that only women are oppressed, because there is no evidence to the contrary?
isms, like sexism, or racism, or cissexism, involve a prejudice (a belief about a generalized category which you’ve reduced from actual instances of unique individuals) + a power balance (which is historical, material, violent, and FUCKING DOCUMENTED)
the overwhelming power balance is towards males
thus, sexism only works one way
why am i bothering to tell you this?
sometimes i need to hear the truth, even if it’s just my own voice on my fucking tumblr
(dies a little inside)
Aaaaaaaand….nope.
First, you presume that the only people sexist against men are women. This comes from feminists’ insistence that men look out for other men, something that’s actually documentably not true. Women display this behavior, but men notably do not.
What this means is that even if (and that’s not truly accurate) men have all the power, that doesn’t mean men aren’t oppressed even if it’s by other men. Additionally, the “sexism = prejudice + (institutional) power” definition is not actually accepted by the sociological community, and is really not very accurate at all. You’re committing the apex fallacy by assuming that power wielded by the top few percent of men generalizes to all men, but when we look at the institutions of government and law we find that virtually all sanctioned discrimination is not against women, it’s against men.
As for your own voice, perhaps you should take a different tack for once, and shut up and listen to the people who actually know what they’re talking about.
(Source: iffeminismisforequality)
